1. Which of the following causes rib-notching in a chest radiograph?
A. Bidirectional Glenn shunt
B. Modified Blalock Taussig shunt
C. IVC occlusion
D. Coarctation of aorta
A. Bidirectional Glenn shunt
B. Modified Blalock Taussig shunt
C. IVC occlusion
D. Coarctation of aorta
Correct answer : D. Coarctation of aorta
2. The ideal timing of radiotherapy for Wilms tumour after surgery is:
A. Within 10 days
B. Within 2 weeks
C. Within 3 weeks
D. Any time after surgery
A. Within 10 days
B. Within 2 weeks
C. Within 3 weeks
D. Any time after surgery
Correct answer : A. Within 10 days
3 .Which one of the following imaging techniques gives maximum radiation exposure to the patient?
A. Chest X-ray
B. MRI
C. CT scan
D. Bone-scan
A. Chest X-ray
B. MRI
C. CT scan
D. Bone-scan
Correct answer : C. CT scan
4. Phosphorus 32 emits:
A. Beta particles
B. Alpha Particles
C. Neutrons
D. X rays
A. Beta particles
B. Alpha Particles
C. Neutrons
D. X rays
Correct answer : A. Beta particles
5. All of the following radioisotopes are used as systemic radionuclide except:
A. Phosphorus
B. Strontium
C. Iridium
D. Samarium
A. Phosphorus
B. Strontium
C. Iridium
D. Samarium
Correct answer : C. Iridium
6.Which one of the following has the maximum ionization potential?
A. Electron
B. Proton
C. Helium ion
D. Gamma ray
A. Electron
B. Proton
C. Helium ion
D. Gamma ray
Correct answer :C. Helium ion
7. Plethoric lung fields are seen in all of the following conditions, except:
a) Atrial septal defect (ASD)
b) TAPVC (Total Anomalous Pulmonary venous connection)
c) Ebsteins’ anomaly
d) Ventricular septal defect
a) Atrial septal defect (ASD)
b) TAPVC (Total Anomalous Pulmonary venous connection)
c) Ebsteins’ anomaly
d) Ventricular septal defect
Correct answer : c) Ebsteins’ anomaly
8. A 40 years old female patient presented with recurrent headaches. MRI showed an extra-axial, dural based and enhancing lesion. The most likely diagnosis is:
a) Meningioma
b) Glioma
c) Schwannoma
d) Pituitary adenoma
a) Meningioma
b) Glioma
c) Schwannoma
d) Pituitary adenoma
Correct answer : a) Meningioma
9 . Which of the following features on mammogram would suggest malignancy?
a) Well defined lesion
b) A mass of decreased density
c) Areas of spiculated microcalcifications
d) Smooth borders
a) Well defined lesion
b) A mass of decreased density
c) Areas of spiculated microcalcifications
d) Smooth borders
Correct answer : c) Areas of spiculated microcalcifications
10. On MRI the differential diagnosis of spinal cord edema is:
a) Myelodysplasia
b) Myelomalacia
c) Myeloschisis
d) Cord tumors
a) Myelodysplasia
b) Myelomalacia
c) Myeloschisis
d) Cord tumors
Correct answer : b) Myelomalacia
11. Most sensitive sonological indicator for aneuploidy is
a) Gestational sac volume
b) Crown-rump length
c) Nuchal translucency
d) Serum B HCG level
a) Gestational sac volume
b) Crown-rump length
c) Nuchal translucency
d) Serum B HCG level
Correct answer : c) Nuchal translucency
12. Most chemoresistant tumors among the following is
a) Synovial sarcoma
b) Osteosarcoma
c) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
d) Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
a) Synovial sarcoma
b) Osteosarcoma
c) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
d) Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
Correct answer : c) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
13. Bone scan of a patient with Multiple Myeloma shows
a) Diffusely increased uptake
b) Diffusely decreased uptake
c) Hot spots
d) Cold spots
a) Diffusely increased uptake
b) Diffusely decreased uptake
c) Hot spots
d) Cold spots
Correct answer : d) Cold spots
14. A male was brought unconscious to the hospital with external injuries. CT brain showed no midline shift, but basal cistems were compressed with multiple small hemorrhages. What is the diagnosis
a) Cortical contusion
b) Cerebral laceration
c) Multiple infarcts
d) Diffuse axonal injuries
a) Cortical contusion
b) Cerebral laceration
c) Multiple infarcts
d) Diffuse axonal injuries
Correct answer : d) Diffuse axonal injuries
15. Spongy appearance with central sunburst calcification is seen in?
a) Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
b) Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
c) Somatostatinoma
d) Serous cystadenoma
a) Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
b) Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
c) Somatostatinoma
d) Serous cystadenoma
Correct answer : d) Serous cystadenoma
16 . Most common hormone deficiency seen after intracranial radiation therapy?
a) Prolactin
b) Gonadotropins
c) ACTH
d) Growth hormone
a) Prolactin
b) Gonadotropins
c) ACTH
d) Growth hormone
Correct answer : d) Growth hormone
17. he diagnostic procedure not done in case of pheochromocytoma.
a) CT scan
b) MRI
c) FNAC
d) MIBG scan
a) CT scan
b) MRI
c) FNAC
d) MIBG scan
Correct answer : c) FNAC
18. Which of these tumors is least radiosensitive
a) Ewing’s sarcoma
b) Osteosarcoma
c) Wilm’s tumor
d) Neuroblastoma
a) Ewing’s sarcoma
b) Osteosarcoma
c) Wilm’s tumor
d) Neuroblastoma
Correct answer : b) Osteosarcoma
19. The following features are true for Tetralogy of Fallot, except:
a. Ventricular septal defect
b. Right ventricular hypertrophy
c. Atrial septal defect
d. Pulmonary stenosis.
Answer-c)
20. The most common retrobulbar orbital mass in adults is:
a. Neurofibroma b. Meningioma
c. Cavernous haemangioma
d. Schwannoma
Answer-c)
.21. Expanisle type osseous metastases are characteristic of primary malignancy of:
a. Kidney b. Bronchus
c. Breast d. Prostate
Answer-a)
a. Ventricular septal defect
b. Right ventricular hypertrophy
c. Atrial septal defect
d. Pulmonary stenosis.
Answer-c)
20. The most common retrobulbar orbital mass in adults is:
a. Neurofibroma b. Meningioma
c. Cavernous haemangioma
d. Schwannoma
Answer-c)
.21. Expanisle type osseous metastases are characteristic of primary malignancy of:
a. Kidney b. Bronchus
c. Breast d. Prostate
Answer-a)
22. Which is the objective sign of identifying pulmonary plethora in a chest radiograph?
a. Diameter of the main pulmonary/ artery> 16mm.
b. Diameter of the left pulmonary artery > 16mm
c. Diameter of the descending right pulmonary artery> 16mm
d. Diameter of the descending left pulmonary artery > 16 mm
Answer-c)
23. The most accurate investigation for assessing ventricular function is:
a. Multislice CT
b. Echocardiography
c. Nuclear scan
d. MRI
Answer-d)
24. The most important sign of significance of renal artery stenosis on an angiogram is:
a. A percentage diameter stenosis> 70%
b. Presence of collaterals
c. A systolic pressure gradient> 20 mm Hg across the lesion
d. Post stenotic dilatation of the renal artery
Answer-b)
26. The MR imaging in multiple sclerosis will show lesion in:
a. White matter b. Grey matter c. Thalamus d. Basal ganglia
Answer-a)
27. The most common location of hypertensive intracranial haemorrhage is:
a. Subarachnoid space
b. Basal ganglia
c. Cerebellum
d. Brainstem
Answer-b)
a. Diameter of the main pulmonary/ artery> 16mm.
b. Diameter of the left pulmonary artery > 16mm
c. Diameter of the descending right pulmonary artery> 16mm
d. Diameter of the descending left pulmonary artery > 16 mm
Answer-c)
23. The most accurate investigation for assessing ventricular function is:
a. Multislice CT
b. Echocardiography
c. Nuclear scan
d. MRI
Answer-d)
24. The most important sign of significance of renal artery stenosis on an angiogram is:
a. A percentage diameter stenosis> 70%
b. Presence of collaterals
c. A systolic pressure gradient> 20 mm Hg across the lesion
d. Post stenotic dilatation of the renal artery
Answer-b)
26. The MR imaging in multiple sclerosis will show lesion in:
a. White matter b. Grey matter c. Thalamus d. Basal ganglia
Answer-a)
27. The most common location of hypertensive intracranial haemorrhage is:
a. Subarachnoid space
b. Basal ganglia
c. Cerebellum
d. Brainstem
Answer-b)
28. Which of the following causes rib- notching on the chest radiography?
a. Bidirectional Glem shunt
b. Modified Blalock- Taussing shunt
c. IVC occlusion
d. Coarctation of aorta
Answer-d)
29. The most sensitive imaging modality to detect early renal tuberculosis is:
a. Intravenous urography
b. Computed tomography
c. Ultrasound
d. Magnetic Resonance imaging
Answer-a)
30. All of them use non- ionizing radiation, except:
a. Ultrasonography
b. Thermography
c. MRI
d. Radiography
Answer-d)
31. The most radiosensitive tumor among the following is:
a. Bronchogenic carcinoma
b. Carcinoma parotid
c. Dysgerminoma
d. Osteogenic sarcoma
Answer-c
32. All of the following modalites can be used for in – situ ablation of liver secondaries, except:
a. Ultrasonic waves
b. Cryotherapy
c. Alcohol
d. Radiofrequency
Answer-c)
33. All of the following radioisotopes are used as systemic radionucleide, except:
a. Phosphorus- 32 b. Strontium – 89
c. Iridium- 192 d. Samarium – 153
Answer-c)
34. Phosphorous – 32 emits:
a. Beta particles b. Alfa particles
c. Neutrons d. X- rays
Answer-a)
35. Which of the following is used in the treatment of differentiated thyroid cancer:
a. 131I b. 99mTc
c. 32P d. 131I-MIBG
Answer-a)
36. Which one of the following imaging techniques gives maximum radiation exposure to the patient?
a. Chest X-ray b. MRI
c. CT scan d. Bone scan
Answer-d)
37. Which one of the following has the maximum ionization potential ?
a. Electron b. Proton
c. Helium ion
d. Gamma (y)-Photon
Answer-c)
38. Typically bilateral inferior lens subluxation of the lens is seen in:
a. Marfan’s syndrome
b. Homocystinuria
c. Hyperlysinaemia
d. Ocular trauma
Answer-b)
a. Bidirectional Glem shunt
b. Modified Blalock- Taussing shunt
c. IVC occlusion
d. Coarctation of aorta
Answer-d)
29. The most sensitive imaging modality to detect early renal tuberculosis is:
a. Intravenous urography
b. Computed tomography
c. Ultrasound
d. Magnetic Resonance imaging
Answer-a)
30. All of them use non- ionizing radiation, except:
a. Ultrasonography
b. Thermography
c. MRI
d. Radiography
Answer-d)
31. The most radiosensitive tumor among the following is:
a. Bronchogenic carcinoma
b. Carcinoma parotid
c. Dysgerminoma
d. Osteogenic sarcoma
Answer-c
32. All of the following modalites can be used for in – situ ablation of liver secondaries, except:
a. Ultrasonic waves
b. Cryotherapy
c. Alcohol
d. Radiofrequency
Answer-c)
33. All of the following radioisotopes are used as systemic radionucleide, except:
a. Phosphorus- 32 b. Strontium – 89
c. Iridium- 192 d. Samarium – 153
Answer-c)
34. Phosphorous – 32 emits:
a. Beta particles b. Alfa particles
c. Neutrons d. X- rays
Answer-a)
35. Which of the following is used in the treatment of differentiated thyroid cancer:
a. 131I b. 99mTc
c. 32P d. 131I-MIBG
Answer-a)
36. Which one of the following imaging techniques gives maximum radiation exposure to the patient?
a. Chest X-ray b. MRI
c. CT scan d. Bone scan
Answer-d)
37. Which one of the following has the maximum ionization potential ?
a. Electron b. Proton
c. Helium ion
d. Gamma (y)-Photon
Answer-c)
38. Typically bilateral inferior lens subluxation of the lens is seen in:
a. Marfan’s syndrome
b. Homocystinuria
c. Hyperlysinaemia
d. Ocular trauma
Answer-b)
39. The procedure of choice for the evaluation of an aneurysm is:
a. Ultrasonography
b. Computed tomography
c.Magnetic resonance imaging
d. Arteriography
Answer-d)
40. The common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is:
a. Arterio- venous malformation
b. Cavenous angioma
c. Aneurysm
d. Hypertension
Answer-c)
41. Spalding’s sign occurs after:
a. Birth of live foetus
b. Death of foetus in uterus
c. Rigor mortis of infant
d. Cadaveric spasm.
Answer-b)
42. Renal artery stenosis may occur in all of the following, except:
a. Atherosclerosis
b. Fibromuscular dysplasia
c. Takayasu’s arteritis
d. Polyarteritis nodosa
Answer-d)
43. Which one of the following congenital malformation of the fetus can be diagnosed in first trimester by ultrasound?
a. Anencephaly
b. Inencephaly
c. Microcephaly
d. Holoprosencephaly
Answer-a)
a. Ultrasonography
b. Computed tomography
c.Magnetic resonance imaging
d. Arteriography
Answer-d)
40. The common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is:
a. Arterio- venous malformation
b. Cavenous angioma
c. Aneurysm
d. Hypertension
Answer-c)
41. Spalding’s sign occurs after:
a. Birth of live foetus
b. Death of foetus in uterus
c. Rigor mortis of infant
d. Cadaveric spasm.
Answer-b)
42. Renal artery stenosis may occur in all of the following, except:
a. Atherosclerosis
b. Fibromuscular dysplasia
c. Takayasu’s arteritis
d. Polyarteritis nodosa
Answer-d)
43. Which one of the following congenital malformation of the fetus can be diagnosed in first trimester by ultrasound?
a. Anencephaly
b. Inencephaly
c. Microcephaly
d. Holoprosencephaly
Answer-a)
44. Which of the following conditions is least likely to present as an acentric osteolytic lesion:
a. Aneurysmal bone cyst
b. Giant cell tumor
c. Fibrous cortical defect
d. Simple bone cyst
Answer-d)
45. “Rugger Jersey Spine” is seen in :
a. Fluorosis
b. Achondroplasia
c. Renal Osteodytrophy
d. Marfan’s Syndrome
Answer-c)
a. Aneurysmal bone cyst
b. Giant cell tumor
c. Fibrous cortical defect
d. Simple bone cyst
Answer-d)
45. “Rugger Jersey Spine” is seen in :
a. Fluorosis
b. Achondroplasia
c. Renal Osteodytrophy
d. Marfan’s Syndrome
Answer-c)
46. Brown tumours are seen in:
a. Hyperparathyroidism
b. Pigmented villonodular synovitis
c. Osteomalacia
d. Neurofibromatosis
Answer-a)
47. Which of the following malignant tumours is radioresistant?
a. Ewing’s sarcoma
b. Retinoblastoma
c. Osteosarcoma
d. Neuroblastoma
Answer-c)
a. Hyperparathyroidism
b. Pigmented villonodular synovitis
c. Osteomalacia
d. Neurofibromatosis
Answer-a)
47. Which of the following malignant tumours is radioresistant?
a. Ewing’s sarcoma
b. Retinoblastoma
c. Osteosarcoma
d. Neuroblastoma
Answer-c)