Monday, 19 February 2018

AART EXAM

1. Which of the following causes rib-notching in a chest radiograph?
A. Bidirectional Glenn shunt
B. Modified Blalock Taussig shunt
C. IVC occlusion
D. Coarctation of aorta
Correct answer : D. Coarctation of aorta
2. The ideal timing of radiotherapy for Wilms tumour after surgery is:
A. Within 10 days
B. Within 2 weeks
C. Within 3 weeks
D. Any time after surgery
Correct answer : A. Within 10 days
3 .Which one of the following imaging techniques gives maximum radiation exposure to the patient?
A. Chest X-ray
B. MRI
C. CT scan
D. Bone-scan
Correct answer : C. CT scan

 

4. Phosphorus 32 emits:
A. Beta particles
B. Alpha Particles
C. Neutrons
D. X rays
Correct answer : A. Beta particles
5. All of the following radioisotopes are used as systemic radionuclide except:
A. Phosphorus
B. Strontium
C. Iridium
D. Samarium
Correct answer : C. Iridium
6.Which one of the following has the maximum ionization potential?
A. Electron
B. Proton
C. Helium ion
D. Gamma ray
Correct answer :C. Helium ion

7. Plethoric lung fields are seen in all of the following conditions, except:
a) Atrial septal defect (ASD)
b) TAPVC (Total Anomalous Pulmonary venous connection)
c) Ebsteins’ anomaly
d) Ventricular septal defect
Correct answer : c) Ebsteins’ anomaly


8. A 40 years old female patient presented with recurrent headaches. MRI showed an extra-axial, dural based and enhancing lesion. The most likely diagnosis is:
a) Meningioma
b) Glioma
c) Schwannoma
d) Pituitary adenoma
Correct answer :  a)  Meningioma
9 . Which of the following features on mammogram would suggest malignancy?
a) Well defined lesion
b) A mass of decreased density
c) Areas of spiculated microcalcifications
d) Smooth borders
Correct answer : c) Areas of spiculated microcalcifications
10. On MRI the differential diagnosis of spinal cord edema is:
a) Myelodysplasia
b) Myelomalacia
c) Myeloschisis
d) Cord tumors
Correct answer : b) Myelomalacia
11. Most sensitive sonological indicator for aneuploidy is
a) Gestational sac volume
b) Crown-rump length
c) Nuchal translucency
d) Serum B HCG level
Correct answer : c) Nuchal translucency



12. Most chemoresistant tumors among the following is
a) Synovial sarcoma
b) Osteosarcoma
c) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
d) Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
Correct answer : c) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
13. Bone scan of a patient with Multiple Myeloma shows
a) Diffusely increased uptake
b) Diffusely decreased uptake
c) Hot spots
d) Cold spots
Correct answer : d) Cold spots

14. A male was brought unconscious to the hospital with external injuries. CT brain showed no midline shift, but basal cistems were compressed with multiple small hemorrhages. What is the diagnosis
a) Cortical contusion
b) Cerebral laceration
c) Multiple infarcts
d) Diffuse axonal injuries
Correct answer : d) Diffuse axonal injuries

15. Spongy appearance with central sunburst calcification is seen in?
a) Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
b) Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
c) Somatostatinoma
d) Serous cystadenoma
Correct answer : d) Serous cystadenoma
16 . Most common hormone deficiency seen after intracranial radiation therapy?
a) Prolactin
b) Gonadotropins
c) ACTH
d) Growth hormone
Correct answer : d) Growth hormone



17. he diagnostic procedure not done in case of pheochromocytoma.
a) CT scan
b) MRI
c) FNAC
d) MIBG scan
Correct answer : c) FNAC
18. Which of these tumors is least radiosensitive
a) Ewing’s sarcoma
b) Osteosarcoma
c) Wilm’s tumor
d) Neuroblastoma
Correct answer : b) Osteosarcoma
19. The following features are true for Tetralogy of Fallot, except:
a. Ventricular septal defect
b. Right ventricular hypertrophy
c. Atrial septal defect
d. Pulmonary stenosis.
Answer-c)

20. The most common retrobulbar orbital mass in adults is:
a. Neurofibroma b. Meningioma
c. Cavernous haemangioma
d. Schwannoma
Answer-c)

.21.  Expanisle type osseous metastases are characteristic of primary malignancy of:
a. Kidney b. Bronchus
c. Breast d. Prostate
Answer-a)

22. Which is the objective sign of identifying pulmonary plethora in a chest radiograph?
a. Diameter of the main pulmonary/ artery> 16mm.
b. Diameter of the left pulmonary artery > 16mm
c. Diameter of the descending right pulmonary artery> 16mm
d. Diameter of the descending left pulmonary artery > 16 mm
Answer-c)

23. The most accurate investigation for assessing ventricular function is:
a. Multislice CT
b. Echocardiography
c. Nuclear scan
d. MRI
Answer-d)

24. The most important sign of significance of renal artery stenosis on an angiogram is:
a. A percentage diameter stenosis> 70%
b. Presence of collaterals
c. A systolic pressure gradient> 20 mm Hg across the lesion
d. Post stenotic dilatation of the renal artery
Answer-b)

26. The MR imaging in multiple sclerosis will show lesion in:
a. White matter b. Grey matter c. Thalamus d. Basal ganglia
Answer-a)

27. The most common location of hypertensive intracranial haemorrhage is:
a. Subarachnoid space
b. Basal ganglia
c. Cerebellum
d. Brainstem
Answer-b) 

28. Which of the following causes rib- notching on the chest radiography?
a. Bidirectional Glem shunt
b. Modified Blalock- Taussing shunt
c. IVC occlusion
d. Coarctation of aorta
Answer-d)

29. The most sensitive imaging modality to detect early renal tuberculosis is:
a. Intravenous urography
b. Computed tomography
c. Ultrasound
d. Magnetic Resonance imaging
Answer-a)

30. All of them use non- ionizing radiation, except:
a. Ultrasonography
b. Thermography
c. MRI
d. Radiography
Answer-d)

31. The most radiosensitive tumor among the following is:
a. Bronchogenic carcinoma
b. Carcinoma parotid
c. Dysgerminoma
d. Osteogenic sarcoma
Answer-c

32. All of the following modalites can be used for in – situ ablation of liver secondaries, except:
a. Ultrasonic waves
b. Cryotherapy
c. Alcohol
d. Radiofrequency
Answer-c)

33. All of the following radioisotopes are used as systemic radionucleide, except:
a. Phosphorus- 32 b. Strontium – 89
c. Iridium- 192 d. Samarium – 153
Answer-c)

34. Phosphorous – 32 emits:
a. Beta particles b. Alfa particles
c. Neutrons d. X- rays
Answer-a)

35. Which of the following is used in the treatment of differentiated thyroid cancer:
a. 131I b. 99mTc
c. 32P d. 131I-MIBG
Answer-a)

36. Which one of the following imaging techniques gives maximum radiation exposure to the patient?
a. Chest X-ray b. MRI
c. CT scan d. Bone scan
Answer-d)

37. Which one of the following has the maximum ionization potential ?
a. Electron b. Proton
c. Helium ion
d. Gamma (y)-Photon
Answer-c)

38. Typically bilateral inferior lens subluxation of the lens is seen in:
a. Marfan’s syndrome
b. Homocystinuria
c. Hyperlysinaemia
d. Ocular trauma
Answer-b)


39. The procedure of choice for the evaluation of an aneurysm is:
a. Ultrasonography
b. Computed tomography
c.Magnetic resonance imaging
d. Arteriography
Answer-d)

40. The common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is:
a. Arterio- venous malformation
b. Cavenous angioma
c. Aneurysm
d. Hypertension
Answer-c)

41. Spalding’s sign occurs after:
a. Birth of live foetus
b. Death of foetus in uterus
c. Rigor mortis of infant
d. Cadaveric spasm.
Answer-b)

42. Renal artery stenosis may occur in all of the following, except:
a. Atherosclerosis
b. Fibromuscular dysplasia
c. Takayasu’s arteritis
d. Polyarteritis nodosa
Answer-d)

43. Which one of the following congenital malformation of the fetus can be diagnosed in first trimester by ultrasound?
a. Anencephaly
b. Inencephaly
c. Microcephaly
d. Holoprosencephaly
Answer-a)

44. Which of the following conditions is least likely to present as an acentric osteolytic lesion:
a. Aneurysmal bone cyst
b. Giant cell tumor
c. Fibrous cortical defect
d. Simple bone cyst
Answer-d)

45. “Rugger Jersey Spine” is seen in :
a. Fluorosis
b. Achondroplasia
c. Renal Osteodytrophy
d. Marfan’s Syndrome
Answer-c)
46. Brown tumours are seen in:
a. Hyperparathyroidism
b. Pigmented villonodular synovitis
c. Osteomalacia
d. Neurofibromatosis
Answer-a)

47. Which of the following malignant tumours is radioresistant?
a. Ewing’s sarcoma
b. Retinoblastoma
c. Osteosarcoma
d. Neuroblastoma
Answer-c)


Tuesday, 6 February 2018

AART EXAM

1.Which of the following is not an x-ray interaction with the atoms of absorbing medium?
A.Photo Electric Edffect
B.Bremsstrahlung*
C.Pair Production
D.Compton Effect
Ans:B

2.The target material used in General purpose Radiography x-ray machine isA.Tungsten*
B.Copper
C.Stainless Steel
D.Aluminium
Ans:A

3.The tilting of anode of a x-ray tube with respect to incident electron axis isA.Line Focus Principle*
B.Anode hell effect
C.Duane Hunt Principle
D.None of the above
Ans:A

4.The vertical plane passing longitudinally  through the human body,divides the body into right and left halves is termed as
A.Transverse plane
B.Coronal Plane
C.Medial plane*
D.None of the above
Ans:C

5.The SI unit of electric current is:
A.Ampere*
B.Coulomb
B.Farad
D.Ohm
Ans:A

6.The power loss in a transformer can occur due to
A.Eddy current
B.Core loss
C.Leakage of flux
D.All of the above*
Ans:D

7.Anode of a rotating anode x-ray tube is rotating with the help of
A.Induction motor*
B.DC Motor
C.Battery
D.None of the above
Ans:A

8.The base of an x-ray film is made of
A.Gadolinium
B.Gelatin
C.Silver
D.Polyester*
Ans:D

9.The active ingredient in emulsion of a Radiographic film is:
A.Silver halide*
B.Cellulose triacetate
C.Rare earth  materials
D.Sodium Sulphate
Ans:A

10.X-ray tube rating charts includes
A.Radiographic rating chart
B.Anode cooling chart
C.Housing cooling chart
D.All of the above*
Ans:D

11.The Radiographic grid was first designed by
A.Bucky*
B.Roentgen
C.Coolidge
D.Faraday
Ans:A

12.Waters view is used for the examination of
A.Ankle
B.Skull
C.Maxillary sinuses*
D.Foot
Ans:C

13.The annual equivalent radiation dose limit for radiation workers in India is:
A.1 mSv
B.20 mSv*
C.100 mSv
D.0.1 mSv
Ans:B

14.The deposition of metallic silver in a radiographic film without exposure to radiation results
A.Artifacts
B.Fog*
C.Latitude
D.Gamma
Ans:B

15.Which of the ollowing component is not connected with the secondary coil of high tension transformer of x-ray generator circuits?
A.X-ray tube
B.Rectifier
C.mA meter
D.KVp meter*
Ans:D

16.The relative ability of radiograph emulsion to respond to x-ray or light is:
A.Speed*
B.Latitude
C.Optical density
D.Contrast
Ans:A

17.Myelogram was the gold standard for the diagnosis of disease of
A.Neutral canal*
B.Kidney
C.Heart
D.Orbit
Ans:A

18.Which of the following is a common cause of x-ray tube failure?
A.Extremely high voltage
B.Burnt out filament
C.Anode melting
D.All of the above*
Ans:D

19.The advantage of CT over MRI is
A.Lack of artifacts from adjacent bones
B.Multiplane capabilities
C.Fine bone details*
D.Soft tissue contrast
Ans:C

20.Molybdenum and rhodium targets are used in----------x-ray tubes
A.CT machines
B.Angiography machines
C.Mammography*
D.Dental x-rays
Ans:C


21.Movement unsharpness in radiographs are due to
A.Heart bet
B.The pulse
C.Peristalsis
D.All of the above*
Ans:D

22.Empty urinary Bladder require before
A.Pelvic Ultrasound
B.CT of Pelvis
C.Hysterosalpingography*
D.All of the above
Ans:C

23.Computed Tomography(CT)machines with two x-ray tybes,two rows of detector,one gantry and one patient table is
A.Multislice CT machines
B.Electron Beam CT
C.Spiral CT
D.Dual Source CT*
Ans:D

24.The upper border of sternum is
A.Supra sterna notch*
B.Acromion
C.Xiphi sternum
D.None of the above
Ans:A

25.The blood flow in the circulatory system can be studied using
A.Doppler techniques*
B.Nuclear magnetic resonance techniques
C.Tomography techniques
D.Scintigraphy
Ans:A

26.The only movable bone in the skull is
A.Frontal bone
B.Nasal bone
C.Mandible*
D.Temporal bone
Ans:C

27.Most of the Limb Joints are
A.Synovial joints*
B.Fibrous joints
C.Cartilaginous joints
D.None of the above
Ans:A

28.The lordotic AP projection of chest is use full for evaluating
A.The carina
B.Pleural effusion
C.An apical lesion*
D.All of the above
Ans:C

29.The metacarpal bones are:A.Four in numbers
B.Five in numbers*
C.Fourteen in numbers
D.Two in numbers
Ans:B
30.A normal red blood cell has a life span of:
A.365 days
B.1 day
C.24 days
D.120 days*
Ans:D

31.Which of the following is not an endocrine gland?
A.Pituitary
B.Adrenalls
C.Pancreas
D.Spleen*
Ans:D

32.Bending of knee joint is
A.Flexion*
B.Extension
C.Abduction
D.Pronation
Ans:A

33.The patella or knee cap is a
A.Long bones
B.Flat bones
C.Sesamoid bone*
D.Irregular bones
Ans:C

34.Length of adult human spinal cord is around
A.10 cm
B.15 cm
C.45 cm*
D.75 cm
Ans:C
55.Blood volume of average adult human being is
A.5 Litres*
B.1 Litre
C.10 Litres
D.20 Litres
Ans:A

36.Pleura is the membrane covering
A.Lung*
B.Heart
C.Brain
D.None of the above
Ans:A

37.True statement regarding the radiography of cervical spine is
A.No tube angulations required in the AP view
B.The tube is angled 5 to 10 degree cephaled*
C.A short focus to film distance required for lateral projection
D.None of the above
Ans:B


38.Which of the following isotope is not used for permanent implant in brachytherapy?
A.Gold 198
B.Iodine 125
C.Palladium 103
D.Cesium 137*
Ans:D


39.Cobalt 60 radioactive isotope has a half life of
A.74 days
B.1620 years
C.30 years
D.5.6 years*
Ans:D


40.Which of the following is a beam modifying device used in Radiotherapy?
A.Phantom
B.Wedges*
C.Breast Board
D.Thermoplastic masks
Ans:B
41.Which of the following readiation detectors cannot be used in automatic exposure control(Photo timers)in an x-ray generator system?
A.Thermolum inesent detector*
B.Photo multiplier detector
C.Ionization detector
D.Solid state detector
Ans:A

42.CT number for air is
A.0
B.-1000*
C.1000
D.1
Ans:B

43.The degree of blackening of Radiographic of film is described by
A.Optical density*
B.Film sensitivity
C.Film speed
D.Gamma
Ans:A

44.True statement regarding plain abdominal radiography is
A.A short exposure time is unnecessary
B.The lower border of cassette should be positioned at the level of pubis symphysis
C.Injection of air via nasogastric tube helps in diagnosis of perforation*
D.All of the above
Ans:C

45.The Gadolinium-diethyltriamine pents acetic acid(Gd-DTPA)is a
A.Contrast medium used in Magnetic Resonance Imaging*
B.Contrast media used for CT imaging
C.Contrast media used in Fluroscopy
D.Emulsion used in x-ray films
Ans:A

46.Which of the following is not a Magnetic Resonance Imaging Parameter?
A.Spin Density
B.Electron Density*
C.T2 Relaxation Time
D.T1 Relaxation Time
Ans:B

47.The inherent filtration in an x-ray tube ranges from
A.0.5 to 1 mm AL*
B..001 to 0.01 mm lead
C..05 to 1 m lead
D.2 to 4 mm Al
Ans:A

48.The added filter used for the radiography of body part of uneven thickness is
A.Heavy metal filters
B.Inherent filtration
C.Wedge filter*
D.None of the above
Ans:C

49.The magnitude of scattered radiation during radiography depends on
A.Energy of x-ray
B.Field size
C.Thickness of patient
D.All of the above*
Ans:D

40.Grid ratio is the
A.Ratio of the height of the lead strips to the width of the inter space material*
B.Number of lead strip lines per centimetre
C.Ratio exposure with grid and without grid
D.Raio of contrast with and without grid
Ans:A

51.Which of the following is a method of scatter reduction in radiography other than using grid?
A.Use of collimator
B.Scanning slit
C.Air gap method
D.All of the above*
Ans:D

52.In spiral CT scanners
A.No ring  detectors
B.Stationary x-ray tube
C.Patient table stationary
D.Patient table moving during scanning process*
Ans:D

53.A radiation detector not suitable for the use in CT scanner is
A.Sodium Iodine Detector
B.Bismuth Germanate Detector
C.Fricke Detector*
D.Cadmium Tungstate
Ans:C

54.Main advantage of fourth generation CT scanner is
A.Less patient dose
B.Elimination of ring artifact*
C.Less scattered radiation
D.All of the above
Ans:B

55.Qunatum mottle is due to
A.Statistical fluctuation in the number of x-rays emitted from x-ray tube*
B.Patient motion
C.Absorption of radiation by high density material
D.Heterogeneous x-ray spectrum
Ans:A

56.CT number of dense bone is
A.+100
B.+1000*
C.+55
D.+35
Ans:B

57.Ring of stationary detectors were introduced in
A.First generation CT scanners
B.Second generation CT scanners
C.Third generation CT scanners
D.Fourth generation CT scanners*
Ans:D

58.Auto transformer works on the principle of
A.Self induction*
B.Mutual induction
C.Ohm’s law
D.Joules law
Ans:A

59.Radioactivity first discovered by
A.William Conrad Roentgen
B.Madam Curie
C.Henry Becquerel*
D.Charles Rutherford
Ans:C


60.X-rays were discovered  in the year
A.1985
B.1895*
C.1589
D.1986
Ans:B

61.Use of intensifying screen results
A.Lower patient dose
B.Increase radiographic contrast
C.All of the above*
D.None of the above
Ans:C


62.In a rotating anode x-ray tube the anode having an Area “A”is tilted to an angle of 10 degree
Then the effective focal area will be
A.A sin 10*
B.A x 20
C.A-20
D.A cos20
Ans:A

63.------------is a double emulsion film?
A.Mammographic film
B.Duplicating film
C.Subtraction film
D.Dental film*
Ans:D

64.Which of the following is not used as a phosphor in the intensifying screens used for radiography?
A.Calcium tungstate
B.Zinc sulphide
C.Gadolinium
D.Aluminium*
Ans:D

65.The speed of intensifying screen is affected by
A.Phosphor composition
B.Crystal size
C.Presence of reflective layer
D.All of the above*
Ans:D

66.---------is not an ingredient of developing solution
A.Hydroquinone
B.Sodium Carbonate
C.Potassium bromide
D.Hypo*
Ans:D

67.Chrome alum is used as a-----in fixer solution
A.Fixing agent
B.Preservative
C.Hardener*
D.Acid medium
Ans:C

68.Which of the following is not a reason for the fog formation in x-ray films?
A.Exposure to light
B.Exposure to x-rays or radionuclide
C.Outdated film
D.Static electricity due to friction between film and other objects*
Ans:D

69.Streaking in x-ray film caused by the following
A.Bending of film
B.Failure to agitate the film in developer*
C.Water droplets on the surface of film
D.Formation of air bubbles in the developer
Ans:B

70.For female patients of reproductive age non urgent abdomen and pelvic radiographs should be taken
A.Within 10 days following menstrual period*
B.10 to 20 days interval following menstrual period
C.20 to 30 days interval following menstrual period
D.There is no such restriction
Ans:A

71.Reason for unsharpness in a radiographic image is
A.Movement
B.Focal spot size
C.Use of screen
D.All of the above*
Ans:D

72.Unequal magnification of different portions of same object in a radiograph is called
A.Crossover
B.Distortion*
C.Unsharpness
D.Fog
Ans:B

73.Most important factor for radiographic contrast is
A.KVp*
B.mA
C.mAs
D.Focus to film distance
Ans:A

74.Anal atresia in Neonates can be diagnosed by
A.Lateral decubitus view
B.AP supine
C.Invertogram*
D.Abdomen AP erect
Ans:C

75.Delineation of contour and cavity of uterus and tubal potency and can be established by
A.Nephrotomography
B.Hysteriosalpingography(HSG)*
C.KUB examination
D.None of the above
Ans:B

76.Small lesions and mucosal lining are more clearly visible in------radiography
A.Single contrast method
B.Double contrast method*
C.No contrast
D.None of the above
Ans:B

77.The radiographic examination of choice to demonstrate the whole of the small bowel from duodenal flexture to ileocaceal valve is
A.Barium Meal Follow through*
B.Hyptonic Dudenography
C.Conventional barium meal
D.None of the above
Ans:A

78.The radiographic investigation of lacrimal system is
A.Arthography
B.Cholangiography
C.Stalography
D.Dacryocystography*
Ans:D

79.The photo cpnductor used in Xeroradiography is
A.Amorphous Selenium*
B.Sodium Iodine
C.Calcium Tungstate
D.Molybdenum
Ans:A

80.Which of the following substance produces Piezo Electric Effect?

A.Quartz*
B.Gadolium Oxy Sulphide
C.Sodium Iodide(Thalium Activated Crystals)
D.Sodium Chloride
Ans:A