Review Questions
1. Routes of entry of toxic chemicals may include:
a. Swallowing and inhalation
b. Inhalation only
c. Absorption through skin or mucous membranes
d. Inhalation, swallowing, or absorption through
skin or mucous membranes
2. Written instructions for handling of biohazardous
materials, safe use of the product, and cleanup and
disposal directions are called:
a. Package inserts
b. HIPAA
c. MSDS
d. Biohazardous warning systems
3. Older patients should be scheduled:
a. Late in the day to give them time to build their
strength
b. For one examination at a time
c. As early in the day as possible
d. Only when no one else is in the department
4. Patients who have been NPO should be scheduled:
a. Last
b. First
c. Just before lunch
d. In any way that helps the work flow
5. Patients with diabetes should be scheduled:
a. Late in the day to give them time to build their
strength
b. Only after they have had their insulin
c. As early in the day as possible
d. Immediately after a full breakfast
6. Endoscopic procedures should be scheduled:
a. After ingestion of barium for increased contrast
b. First in a series of procedures
c. After a series of procedures so as to verify the
diagnosis
d. Only by the endoscopy department
7. What describes torts?
a. Violations of criminal law
b. Considered part of personal injury law
c. Provide for compensation for injury
d. Violations of civil law that are part of personal
injury law and provide for compensation for injury
8. Which of the following may be considered as an
example of battery?
a. Violating HIPAA
b. Radiographing the wrong patient or body part
c. Verbally abusing a patient
d. Criticizing a physician’s order in front of a patient
9. Assault means:
a. Threatening the patient or causing the patient to
be apprehensive
b. Striking the patient
c. Touching the patient without consent
d. Performing radiography against the patient’s will
10. Which of the following is an example of invasion of
privacy?
a. Radiographing the wrong patient
b. Unjustified restraint of patient
c. Improperly exposing the patient’s body
d. Radiographing the wrong body part
11. Unintentional misconduct is also called:
a. Negligence
b. An accident
c. Libel
d. Slander
12. The concept of the reasonably prudent person is
interpreted as:
a. How a reasonable jury member would perform
the act
b. How a professional who has similar education,
training, and experience would perform the act
c. How a prudent attorney would interpret the act
d. How a reasonable and prudent judge would rule
on the act
13. Respondeat superior means:
a. “The thing speaks for itself ”
b. A radiographer has no need to carry malpractice
insurance
c. The reasonable and prudent person should make
the decision
d. “Let the master answer”
14. Gross negligence is:
a. A case that includes the injured person as a contributing
party to the injury
b. Loss of life or limb
c. An act that shows reckless disregard for life or limb
d. Found in criminal cases only
15. Which of the following conditions must be met to
prove malpractice?
a. The injury actually occurred and is a result of
negligence
b. The standard of care was violated by the person
being sued
c. The injury was caused by the person being sued
and is a result of negligence
d. The standard of care was violated and the injury
actually occurred and was caused by the defendant
and was a result of negligence
16. A case involving obvious negligence would be defined
by the doctrine of:
a. Respondeat superior
b. Slander
c. Libel
d. Res ipsa loquitur
17. Which of the following statements are true concerning
valid (informed) consent?
1. Patient must be of legal age
2. Patient must be given a brochure describing the
risks of the procedure in lay terms
3. Consent must be offered voluntarily
4. Patient must be mentally competent
5. Patient must completely understand all aspects of
the procedure
a. 1, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
c. 1, 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 5
18. Patient transfers from cart to x-ray table and back to
cart should be performed:
a. By the radiographer alone if the patient is
ambulatory
b. By two or more radiographers to ensure patient
and radiographer safety
c. By the radiographer alone if the department is
short staffed
d. By the radiographer alone so as not to frighten the
patient
19. A patient history should be taken by the radiographer:
a. To assist the radiographer in understanding the
patient’s injury and to assist the radiologist with
interpretation of the images
b. To verify patient name and form of payment
c. Only on patients from the ED
d. Only in the absence of the patient’s chart
20. Direct contact allows an infectious organism to
move:
a. From the susceptible host directly to the infected
person
b. From the infected person directly to the susceptible
host
c. In either direction
21. MSDS provide directions for:
a. Housekeeping only
b. Engineering only
c. Radiology only
d. All persons exposed to hazardous materials
22. If the radiographer touches hazardous chemicals,
what must be done first?
a. Rinse immediately with warm water
b. Rinse immediately with cool water for at least 5
minutes
c. Rinse immediately with cool water for at least 15
minutes
d. Rinse with the warmest water that can be
tolerated
23. Vectors may be:
a. Insects
b. Persons
c. Plants
d. Objects24. Common vehicle transmission involves:
a. The spread of infection in crowded forms of public
transportation, such as jet aircrafts, subways, and
trains
b. Food, water, medications, and equipment
c. Animals
d. Plants
25. Airborne transmission of infection may occur as a
result of contact with:
a. Bird droppings, acid rain, or air pollution
b. Droplets and dust
c. Animals
d. Other humans
26. Indirect contact involves:
a. Coughs or sneezes
b. An object containing pathogenic organisms
c. Plants and animals
d. Other humans
27. A system that emphasizes the placement of barriers
between the health care worker and the patient is called:
a. Universal precautions
b. Standard precautions
c. Universal safety
d. Infection barriers
28. The placement of barriers between the health care
worker and the patient assumes that:
a. There is always a contagion present
b. No one wants to be touched
c. Every patient should be in isolation
d. Every health care worker is carrying something
contagious
29. The most effective method used to prevent the spread
of infection is:
a. Wearing of gloves
b. Wearing of gowns
c. Distance
d. Handwashing
30. Because barium enemas increase the possibility of
contact between body substances and clothing, the
radiographer should always wear:
a. Disposable gowns or surgical scrubs
b. Head covering
c. Shoe covering
d. A regular hospital uniform
31. A radiographer should wear eye protection:
a. Any time blood may be present
b. Any time an injection is being made
c. Any time there is a possibility of blood splashing
d. With nearly all patients
32. Needles should be recapped after use:
a. Never
b. Always
c. In a nonsterile field
d. Only during procedures involving a sterile field
33. Any area that is touched by body fluids:
a. Must be washed completely
b. Must be covered and isolated for the remainder of
the day
c. Must be evaluated by infection control
d. Must be reported to risk management
34. Hands should be washed:
a. At least five times during each shift to help stop
the spread of infections
b. Before and after contact with each patient and
before touching equipment
c. Every hour regardless of patient contact
d. Both with and without gloves
35. The process of eliminating as many organisms as possible
by the use of water and chemical disinfectants is
called:
a. Surgical asepsis
b. Sterilization
c. Medical asepsis
d. Boiling
36. The process of eliminating all organisms from the
environment by gas sterilization, use of germicides, or
use of dry heat is called:
a. Surgical asepsis
b. Sterilization
c. Medical asepsis
d. Autoclaving
37. When putting on gloves for a procedure, which of the
following should occur first?
a. Carefully open glove package, and avoid touching
outside of gloves
b. Wash hands
c. Place glove package in center of sterile field in
preparation for the procedure
d. Put on one glove immediately so that one hand is
protected and the other is free
38. After a radiographer is gowned and gloved for a procedure,
hands may not be placed:
a. Anywhere on the body because the gown and
gloves are sterile
b. Anywhere on the front or sides of the gown
c. Anywhere on the table containing the sterile field
d. Under the arms or on the sides or back of the
gown
39. A radiographer who is assisting with a sterile procedure
but is not gloved and gowned:
a. Should stand between the physician and the sterile
field
b. Should carefully place all utensils needed in the
center of the sterile field by dropping them after
removing them from their packages
c. May briefly come in contact with the sterile field
to move utensils around
d. May not have contact with the sterile field or anyone
who is scrubbed in
40. What route of transmission involves touching a susceptible
person with a contaminated object (e.g., an
IR)?
a. Droplet transmission
b. Indirect contact
c. Direct contact
d. Airborne transmission
41. Which of the following transmission-based precautions
also require the use of standard precautions?
a. Airborne and droplet precautions
b. Only contact precautions
c. Only droplet precautions
d. Droplet, contact, and airborne precautions
42. Which of the following rules must always be followed
regardless of the route of transmission of infection?
a. Gloves must be worn
b. Gowns must be worn
c. Patient must not have any direct contact with the
health care worker
d. Handwashing must be performed
43. Which of the following does not require the use of
gloves?
1. Airborne
2. Droplet
3. Contact
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1, 2
d. 1, 3
44. Which of the following requires that all equipment
and personnel be carefully covered?
a. Airborne precautions
b. Contact precautions
c. Droplet precautions
d. Patients with neutropenia
45. What is used for total protection of the health care
worker from every method of transmission possible
in the work setting?
a. Standard precautions
b. Airborne precautions
c. Contact precautions
d. Droplet precautions
46. Used bandages and dressings must be placed:
a. Inside contaminated linens so they are not touched
b. Into red plastic biohazard bags and sealed
c. Into sharps containers
d. In a nearby waste container
47. The winged infusion set used for venipuncture is also
known as:
a. IV catheter
b. Hypodermic needle
c. Butterfly
d. Winged injection set
48. When performing mobile radiography on a patient in
isolation, which two radiographers are designated?
a. Primary and secondary
b. Clean and contaminated
c. Technologist and student
d. Clean and dirty
49. The most common site of health care-acquired infections
(HIA) is:
a. Open wound
b. Compound fracture
c. Urinary catheter
d. Surgical sutures
50. The reservoir of infection is located:
a. Anywhere organisms can thrive
b. On all surfaces
c. Only on patients in isolation
d. Only on already contaminated surfaces
51. Assessment of changing patient conditions includes
observing for:
a. Skin that becomes unusually warm
b. Patient expressions of discomfort or dizziness
c. Lips that become jaundiced
d. Skin that becomes diaphoretic, lips and nails that
turn cyanotic, and patient complaints of dizziness
or discomfort
52. The normal adult body temperature taken orally is:
a. 98.6° C
b. 98° C to 99° C
c. 99.6° F
d. 98° F to 99° F
53. Which of the following may be ingested by a patient
who has been placed on a clear liquid diet?
1. Bouillon
2. Gelatin
3. Tea
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
54. Barium sulfate is classified as a(n):
a. Dissolvable organic salt
b. Inert inorganic salt
c. Nonionic contrast agent
d. Iodinated contrast agent
55. A sphygmomanometer is used to:
a. Hear the heartbeat
b. Hear the blood pressure
c. Measure blood pressure
d. Measure body temperature
56. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg reveals that:
a. The pressure is 120 mm Hg when the heart is
at rest
b. The diastolic pressure is 120 mm Hg
c. The systolic pressure is 80 mm Hg
d. The pressure is 80 mm Hg when the heart is at rest
57. When oxygen is administered, the usual rate is:
a. 3 to 5 lb/minute
b. 3 to 5 L/hour
c. 3 to 5 L/minute
d. 5 to 7 L/minute
58. A mechanical method used to clear the patient’s airway
is called:
a. The Heimlich maneuver
b. CPR
c. Suctioning
d. NG tube insertion
59. Which of the following contains all the instruments and
medications necessary for dealing with cardiac arrest?
a. Crash cart
b. Tackle box
c. IVP cabinet
d. Code cabinet
60. What condition is caused by loss of a large amount of
blood or plasma?
a. Anaphylaxis
b. Cardiogenic shock
c. Hypovolemic shock
d. Septic shock
61. What causes blood to pool in peripheral vessels?
a. Anaphylaxis
b. Cardiogenic shock
c. Hypovolemic shock
d. Neurogenic shock
62. What follows an allergic reaction to foreign proteins?
a. Anaphylaxis
b. Cardiogenic shock
c. Hypovolemic shock
d. Septic shock
63. What is caused by an infection that results in
extremely low blood pressure?
a. Anaphylaxis
b. Cardiogenic shock
c. Hypovolemic shock
d. Septic shock
64. What condition occurs secondary to heart failure or
interference with heart function?
a. Anaphylaxis
b. Cardiogenic shock
c. Hypovolemic shock
d. Septic shock
65. What condition may occur after injection of an iodinated
contrast agent?
a. Anaphylaxis
b. Cardiogenic shock
c. Hypovolemic shock
d. Septic shock
66. Which of the following is a symptom of shock?
a. Accelerated pulse; extremely warm skin
b. Accelerated pulse; cool, clammy, pale skin
c. Systolic pressure less than 50 mm Hg
d. Accelerated pulse; cool, clammy, pale skin; systolic
blood pressure less than 30 mm Hg
67. What should the radiographer do first when it is suspected
a patient is going into shock?
a. Call for assistance
b. Place patient in Trendelenburg position
c. Take patient’s blood pressure to confirm shock status
d. Administer oxygen
68. Which of the following statements apply when radiography
is performed on trauma patients?
1. Work quickly and efficiently
2. Patient may be left alone if unconscious
3. Spinal injury may be ruled out if patient is not on
a spine board or wearing a cervical collar
4. Observe for changes in wound dressing while performing
radiography
5. Document in writing changes in patient’s condition
a. 1, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 1, 4, 5
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
69. Which of the following is used to feed a patient or
conduct gastric suction?
a. Urinary catheter
b. Chest tube
c. Ventilator
d. NG tube
70. Which of the following is used to administer nutrition
or long-term chemotherapy?
a. Urinary catheter
b. Chest tube
c. Ventilator
d. Venous catheter
71. What is the site of most nosocomial (health careacquired)
infections?
a. Urinary catheter
b. Chest tube
c. NG tube
d. Venous catheter
72. What is another name for a mechanical respirator?
a. Urinary catheter
b. Chest tube
c. Ventilator
d. Venous catheter
73. The most frequently performed examination using a
contrast medium is a(n):
a. Small bowel study
b. IVP
c. Barium enema
d. Chest x-ray study
74. Which of the following statements are true concerning
positive contrast media? (choose 4)
a. Air is the most commonly used
b. Aqueous iodine compounds may be used if perforations
are suspected
c. Barium should be mixed with cold water for retrograde
administration
d. Nonionic contrast media are ideal for injection
because they do not contain iodine, reducing the
risk of reactions
e. Barium is an inert substance
f. Aqueous iodine compounds may cause serious
dehydration
g. Barium is a surgical contaminant
75. Which of the following is a legitimate contraindication
to the use of iodinated contrast media?
a. Allergy to seafood
b. Known sensitivity to proteins
c. Previous sensitivity to contrast agents
d. Allergy to any medications
76. A reaction at the site of injection of iodinated contrast
media may be caused by:
a. Extravasation of contrast agent
b. Allergy to seafood
c. Anaphylaxis
d. Allergy to certain medications
77. Which of the following is a symptom (are symptoms)
of a contrast agent reaction?
a. Hoarseness and sneezing
b. Sneezing only
c. Urticaria is the primary symptom
d. Hoarseness, sneezing, urticaria, and vomiting
78. After injection of iodinated contrast media, the
radiographer should:
a. Leave the patient to rest
b. Remain with the patient and have a conversation
with the patient, listening for signs of laryngeal
swelling
c. Tell the patient a funny story as a means of alleviating
anxiety about the procedure
d. Alert a radiologist
79. At the first indication of a contrast agent reaction, the
radiographer should:
a. Immediately shout for help
b. Stop the examination and obtain help so as not to
alarm the patient
c. Continue with the examination because most
reactions turn out to be minor
d. Call a respiratory or cardiac arrest code
80. Hypodermic needles are described by their gauge,
which is a:
a. List of the uses of the needle
b. Measure of the length of the needle
c. Measure of the diameter of the needle
d. Measure of the diameter of the needle opening—
the larger the gauge, the smaller the diameter
81. Air must not be injected when performing venipuncture
because:
a. An air embolus would form and may become fatal
to the patient
b. Most examinations requiring injection are not air
contrast studies
c. It would interfere with the iodine
d. It would prevent visualization of the iodine
82. A smaller, easier-to-handle injection set that includes
plastic projections on both sides of the needle and
may be used for venipuncture is called a:
a. Venous catheter
b. Butterfly
c. Hypodermic needle
d. Single-injection needle
83. A venous catheter:
a. Is less flexible and more difficult to use than a needle
or butterfly
b. Is a combination unit with a needle inside a flexible
plastic catheter; both the needle and the catheter
are inserted into the vein, after which the
needle is withdrawn
c. Is only used for chemotherapy
84. Place the following steps for performing venipuncture
in the proper order.
1. Secure tourniquet in place
2. Thoroughly cleanse the skin
3. Wash hands
4. Select vein
5. Put on gloves
6. Perform puncture
7. Cover wound and compress site
8. Inject contrast agent
9. Check wound for swelling
10. Observe blood return
a. 5, 4, 1, 6, 8, 7
b. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2, 6, 10, 8, 7, 9
c. 3, 5, 1, 4, 2, 6, 10, 8, 7, 9
d. 4, 1, 3, 5, 2, 6, 8, 9, 10, 7
85. Venipuncture:
a. May be performed by a radiographer where
allowed by state law
b. May be performed by a nurse only
c. Must be performed by a radiology supervisor
d. May be performed by a radiographer under any
circumstances
86. A contrast medium overdose:
a. Cannot occur because a contrast medium is not a drug
b. May occur in infants
c. May occur if contrast material was injected during
the week before the examination
d. May occur in infants or adults who have renal, cardiac,
or hepatic failure
87. If medication needs to be ordered for a patient in the
radiology department, a physician always:
1. Chooses the drug and the dosage
2. Selects the route of administration
3. Administers the drug
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
88. A patient who has sustained a head injury in a motor
vehicle accident arrived in the radiology department
alert and well oriented. While radiographing the
patient, the radiographer observed that the patient
was becoming drowsy, irritable, and less coherent.
Which of the following would be the correct action
for the radiographer to take?
a. Continue the radiographic examination
b. Ignore the changes in the patient’s condition, and
place the patient back on the stretcher after completing
the examination
c. Notify the department supervisor or the attending
physician of the change in the patient’s condition
d. Sound an emergency code alert
89. A reaction that causes the patient’s skin to turn cyanotic
means:
a. The skin is turning yellow
b. The skin is turning white
c. The skin is turning blue
d. The skin is turning red
90. What degree of reaction is vomiting?
a. Mild to moderate reaction to contrast agent
b. Severe reaction to contrast agent
c. Not considered a reaction to contrast agent
91. In patient care, the radiographer must be constantly
aware of the myriad of variations among people of all
backgrounds and experiences. This involves the study
and understanding of:
a. Nonverbal communication
b. Diversity
c. Verbal communication only
d. Patient preferences
92. What degree of reaction is dyspnea?
a. Mild to moderate reaction to contrast agent
b. Severe reaction to contrast agent
c. Not considered a reaction to contrast agent
93. Which of the following is always a part of the radiographer’s
scope of practice?
a. Patient education
b. Administration of medications
c. Serve as a resource person for referring physicians
d. Serving on the hospital’s radiation safety committee
94. What degree of reaction is cardiac arrest?
a. Mild to moderate reaction to contrast agent
b. Severe reaction to contrast agent
c. Not considered a reaction to contrast agent
95. A document that provides instructions regarding
medical care that a patient may prepare before incapacitation
is called a(n):
a. Preplanning order
b. Advance directive
c. Physician notice
d. Informed consent
96. The formal term for “no code” is a(n):
a. Advance directive
b. Right to die
c. Do not resuscitate (DNR) order
d. Euthanasia
97. Which of the following contains points that are
enforceable?
a. ARRT Mission Statement
b. ARRT Code of Ethics
c. ARRT Examination Content Specifications
d. ARRT Rules of Ethics
98. Which of the following serves as a guide to professional
conduct?
a. ARRT Mission Statement
b. ARRT Code of Ethics
c. ARRT Examination Content Specifications
d. ARRT Rules of Ethics
99. The patient may be left alone following injection of a
contrast agent:
a. Never
b. After several minutes have passed and there is no
sign of a reaction
c. Immediately since contrast agent reactions are rare
d. If they are of legal age
100. The study of contrast agents, their administration,
and possible reactions fall under the category of:
a. Nursing
b. Pharmacology
c. Emergency care
d. Respiratory car
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